Leadership and learning are indispensable to each other.
1. Which of the following is the largest source of water
pollution in major rivers of India?
(A) Untreated sewage
(B) Agriculture
run-off
(C) Unregulated small scale industries
(D) Religious practices
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Correct Answer is A
2. Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be
achieved by
(A) 2022
(B) 2030
(C) 2040
(D) 2050
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Correct Answer is B
3. Indian government’s target of producing power from biomass
by the year 2022, is
(A) 50 MW
(B) 25 MW
(C) 15 MW
(D) 10 MW
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Correct Answer is D
4. Assertion (A): Conserving our soil resources is critical to
human survival.
Reason (R): Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.
Choose the correct code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
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Correct Answer is A
5. World Meteorological Organization’s (WMO) objective has been to reduce the number of deaths due to hydro meteorological
disasters over the decade 2010-2019 by (with reference to the decade
1994-2003)
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) 80%
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Correct Answer is B
6. .............. is a type of memory circuitry that holds the
computer’s start-up routine.
(A) RIM (Read Initial Memory)
(B) RAM (Random Access
Memory)
(C) ROM (Read Only Memory)
(D) Cache Memory
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Correct Answer is C
7. An ASCII is a character-encoding scheme that is employed
by personal computers in order to represent various characters,
numbers and control keys that the computer user selects on the
keyboard. ASCII is an acronym for
(A) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Intelligent Information
(C) American Standard Code for Information Integrity
(D) American Standard Code for Isolated Information
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Correct Answer is A
8. Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes
and also respiratory tract of human beings.
(A) Particulate matter
(B) Oxides of nitrogen
(C) Surface ozone
(D) Carbon monoxide
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Correct Answer is C
9. Which of the following statements about the Indian
political system is/are correct?
(a) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.
(b) Parliament is Supreme.
(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justiciable.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (b) and (c)
(D) (c) only
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Correct Answer is C
10. Which of the following are the fundamental duties?
(a) To respect the National Flag.
(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.
(c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education to his/her child.
(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.
Select the correct answer from the codes given:
Codes:
(A) (a), (b) and (c)
(B) (a), (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
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Correct Answer is D
11. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of
Niti Aayog?
(a) It is a constitutional body.
(b) It is a statutory body.
(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
(d) It is a think-tank.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (d)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
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Correct Answer is C
12. Which of the following core value among the institutions of
higher education are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment
and Accreditation Council)?
(a) Contributing to national development.
(b) Fostering global competencies among the students.
(c) Inculcating a value system among students.
(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
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Correct Answer is B
13. The best way for providing value education is through
(A) discussions on scriptural texts
(B) lecture/discourses on values
(C) seminars/symposia on values
(D) mentoring/reflective sessions
on values
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Correct Answer is B
14. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has
been declared unconstitutional by
(A) The Supreme Court of India
(B) The High Court
(C) The High Court and the Supreme Court both
(D) The President of India
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Correct Answer is A
15. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered
helpful in designing effective teaching-learning systems? Select the
correct alternative from the codes given below:
(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.
(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learner’s family friends.
(iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject.
(iv) Student’s language background.
(v) Interest of students in following the prescribed dress code.
(vi) Motivational-orientation of the students.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(D) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
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Correct Answer is B
16. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her
lectures with an intent to develop cognitive dimensions of students
centered on skills of analysis and synthesis. Below, given are two sets
of items Set-I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and Set-II comprising basic requirements for promoting them. Match the two
sets and indicate your answer by choosing the correct alternative
from the code:
Code:
Set-I (Levels of Cognitive Interchange)
Set-II (Basic
requirements for promoting cognitive interchange)
a. Memory level and non-examples of a point.
i. Giving opportunity for discriminating examples
b. Understanding level during the presentations.
ii. Recording the
important points made
c. Reflective level items of information.
iii. Asking the students to discuss various
iv. Critically analyzing the
points to be made and discussed
a b c
(A) ii iv i
(B) iii iv ii
(C) ii i iv
(D) i ii iii
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Correct Answer is C
17. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in
respect of evaluation system. Choose the correct code:
Code:
Set-I
Set-II
a. Formative evaluation
i. Evaluating cognitive and cocognitive
aspects with regularity
b. Summative evaluation
ii. Tests and their interpretations based on
a group and certain yardsticks
c. Continuous and comprehensive
iii. Grading the final learning
outcomesevaluation
d. Norm and criterion referenced
iv. Quizzes and discussions tests
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) i iii iv ii
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Correct Answer is A
18. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors
contributing to effectiveness of teaching:
List of factors:
(a) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject.
(b) Teacher’s socio-economic background.
(c) Communication skill of the teacher.
(d) Teacher’s ability to please the students.
(e) Teacher’s personal contact with students.
(f) Teacher’s competence in managing and monitoring the classroom
transactions.
Codes:
(A) (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (c), (d) and (f)
(C) (b), (d) and (e)
(D) (a), (c) and (f)
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Correct Answer is D
19. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of
(A) Attracting student’s attention in the class room.
(B) Minimizing indiscipline problems in the classroom.
(C) Optimizing learning outcomes of students.
(D) Effective engagement of students in learning tasks.
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Correct Answer is D
20. Assertion (A): The purpose of higher education is to promote
critical and creative thinking abilities among students.
Reason (R): These abilities ensure job placements.
Choose the correct answer from the following code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true
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Correct Answer is C
21. In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following
features may be considered critical?
(A) Data collection with standardised research tools.
(B) Sampling design with probability sample techniques.
(C) Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.
(D) Data gathering to take with top-down systematic evidences.
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Correct Answer is C
22. From the following list of statements identify the set which
has negative implications for ‘research ethics’ :
(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.
(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references.
(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policy making.
(iv) Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research
evidences.
(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from
other researches.
(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in
terms of preliminary studies.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(D) (i), (iii) and (v)
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Correct Answer is C
23. In a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on
stress-proneness of children in competing school projects, the
hypothesis formulated is that ‘child rearing practices do influence
stress-proneness’. At the data-analysis stage a null hypothesis is
advanced to find out the tenability of research hypothesis. On the
basis of the evidence available, the null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01
level of significance. What decision may be warranted in respect of
the research hypothesis?
(A) The research hypothesis will also be rejected.
(B) The research hypothesis will be accepted
(C) Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected.
(D) No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis
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Correct Answer is B
24. A research intends to explore the effect of possible factors
for the organization of effective mid-day meal interventions. Which
research method will be most appropriate for this study?
(A) Historical method
(B) Descriptive survey method
(C) Experimental method
(D) Ex-post-facto method
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Correct Answer is D
25. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement
for pursuing research?
(A) Developing a research design
(B) Formulating a research question
(C) Deciding about the data analysis procedure
(D) Formulating a research hypothesis
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Correct Answer is B
26. The format of thesis writing is the same as in
(A) preparation of a research paper/article
(B) writing of seminar presentation
(C) a research dissertation
(D) presenting a workshop/conference paper
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Correct Answer is C
27. What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets?
(A) Access to capital
(B) Common office buildings
(C) Superior knowledge
(D) Common metals
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Correct Answer is C
28. The passage also mentions about the trend of
(A) Global financial flow
(B) Absence of competition in manufacturing industry
(C) Regionalisation of capitalists
(D) Organizational incompatibility
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Correct Answer is A
29. What does the author lay stress on in the passage?
(A) International commerce
(B) Labour-Intensive industries
(C) Capital resource management
(D) Knowledge-driven
competitive advantage
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Correct Answer is D
30. Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in automobile
industry for decades?
(A) South Korea
(B) Japan
(C) Mexico
(D) Malaysia
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Correct Answer is B
31. Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and
Singapore cannot be sustained in IT and service sectors?
(A) Due to diminishing levels of skill.
(B) Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads.
(C) Because of new competitors.
(D) Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing industries
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Correct Answer is C
32. How can an organization enjoy competitive advantage
sustainable overtime?
(A) Through regional capital flows.
(B) Through regional interactions among business players
(C) By making large banks, industries and markets coalesced.
(D) By effective use of various instrumentalities.
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Correct Answer is D
33. The choice of communication partners is influenced by
factors of
(A) Proximity, utility, loneliness
(B) Utility, secrecy, dissonance
(C) Secrecy, dissonance, deception
(D) Dissimilarity, dissonance, deviance
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is A
34. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective
presence in the classroom.
(A) Use of peer command
(B) Making
aggressive statements
(C) Adoption of well-established posture
(D) Being authoritarian
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Correct Answer is C
35. Every communicator has to experience
(A) Manipulated emotions
(B) Anticipatory excitement
(C) The issue of homophiles
(D) Status dislocation
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Correct Answer is B
36. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where
people are of equal status. Which method of communication is best
suited and normally employed in such a context?
(A) Horizontal communication
(B) Vertical communication
(C) Corporate communication
(D) Cross communication
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Correct Answer is A
37. Identify the important element a teacher has to take
cognizance of while addressing students in a classroom.
(A) Avoidance of proximity
(B) Voice modulation
(C) Repetitive pause
(D) Fixed posture
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Correct Answer is B
38. What are the barriers to effective communication?
(A) Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation.
(B) Dialogue, summary and self-review.
(C) Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude.
(D) Personal statements, eye contact and simple narration.
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Correct Answer is A
39. A person walks 10 m infront and 10 m to the right. Then
every time turning to his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15 m respectively.
How far is he now from his starting point?
(A) 20 m
(B) 15 m
(C) 10 m
(D) 5 m
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Correct Answer is D
40. A is sister of B. F is daughter of G. C is mother of B. D is
father of C. E is mother of D. A is related to D as
(A) Grand daughter
(B) Daughter
(C) Daughter-in-law
(D) Sister
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Correct Answer is A
41. In the series AB, EDC, FGHI, ......?......, OPQRST, the
missing term is
(A) JKLMN
(B) JMKNL
(C) NMLKJ
(D) NMKLJ
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Correct Answer is C
42. Among the following propositions two are related in such a
way that one is the denial of the other. Which are those propositions?
Select the correct code:
Propositions:
(a) All women are equal to men
(b) Some women are equal to men
(c) Some women are not equal to men
(d) No women are equal to men
Codes:
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (a) and (c)
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Correct Answer is D
43. In certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML.
The code of AMERICANS will be
(A) YKCPGAYLQ
(B) BNFSJDBMR
(C) QLYAGPCKY
(D) YQKLCYPAG
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Correct Answer is A
44.In the series
3, 11, 23, 39, 59, ...........,
The next term will be
(A) 63
(B) 73
(C) 83
(D) 93
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Correct Answer is C
45. Two railway tickets from city A and B and three tickets from
city A to C cost Rs.177. Three tickets from city A to B and two tickets
from city A to C city Rs.173. The fare for city B from city A will be
Rs.
(A) 25
(B) 27
(C) 30
(D) 33
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Correct Answer is D
46. Select the code, which is not correct in the context of
deductive argument with two premises:
(A) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false
conclusion may be valid.
(B) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
(C) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a true
conclusion may be valid.
(D) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
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Correct Answer is B
47. Given below two premise and four conclusions are drawn
from them (taking singly or together). Select the code that states the
conclusions validly drawn.
Premises:
(i) All religious persons are emotional.
(ii) Ram is a religious person.
Conclusions:
(a) Ram is emotional.
(b) All emotional persons are religious.
(c) Ram is not a non-religious person.
(d) Some religious persons are not emotional.
Codes:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a) only
(B) (a) and (c) only
(D) (b) and (c) only
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Correct Answer is C
48. If the proposition ‘All thieves are poor’ is false, which of the
following propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?
Propositions:
(A) Some thieves are poor.
(B) Some thieves are not poor.
(C) No thief is poor.
(D) No poor person is a thief.
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Correct Answer is B
49. Consider the following statement and select the correct code
stating the nature of the argument involved in it:
To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space
is as absurd as to assert that in an entire field of millet only one grain will
grow.
(A) Astronomical
(B) Anthropological
(C) Deductive
(D) Analogical
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Correct Answer is D
50. Select the code, which is not correct about Venn diagram:
(A) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.
(B) It can provide clear method of notation.
(C) It can be either valid or invalid.
(D) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is C
The following table shows the percentage profit (%) earned by two companies A and B during the years 2011-15. Answer questions 51 - 53 based on the data contained in the table:
51. If the total expenditure of the two companies was Rs.9 lakh
in the year 2012 and the expenditure of A and B were in the ratio2:1,
then what was the income of the company A in that year?
(A) Rs.9.2 lakh
(B) Rs.8.1 lakh
(C) Rs.7.2 lakh
(D) Rs.6.0 lakh
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Correct Answer is B
52. What is the average percentage profit earned by the
company B?
(A) 35%
(B) 42%
(C) 38%
(D) 40%
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Correct Answer is C
53. In which year, the percentage profit earned by the company
B is less than that of company A?
(A) 2012
(B) 2013
(C) 2014
(D) 2015
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is B
The table shows the number of people in different age groups who responded to a survey about their favourite style of music. Use this information to answer the questions that follow:
54. Approximately what percentage of the total sample were
aged 21-30?
(A) 31%
(B) 23%
(C) 25%
(D) 14%
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Correct Answer is C
55. Approximately what percentage of the total sample indicates
that Hip-Hop is their favourite style of music?
(A) 6%
(B) 8%
(C) 14%
(D) 12%
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is D
56. What percentage of respondents aged 31+ indicated a
favourite style other than classical music?
(A) 64%
(B) 60%
(C) 75%
(D) 50%
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is C
57. An unsolicited e-mail message sent to many recipient at once
is a
(A) Worm
(B) Virus
(C) Threat
(D) Spam
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is D
58. The statement “the study, design, development,
implementation, support or management of computer-based
information systems, particularly software applications and computer
Hardware” refers to
(A) Information Technology (IT)
(B) Information and Collaborative Technology (ICT)
(C) Information and Data Technology (IDT)
(D) Artificial Intelligence (AI)
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is A
59. If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000,
then the binary equivalent of the decimal number 51 is given by
(A) 110011
(B) 110010
(C) 110001
(D) 110100
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is A
60. The process of copying files to a CD-ROM is known as
(A) Burning
(B) Zipping
(C) Digitizing
(D) Ripping
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is A
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