The art of communication is the language of leadership.
1. "lf a large diamond is cut up into little bits, it will lose its
value just as an army is divided up into small units of soldiers, it loses
its strength."
The argument put above may be called as
(A) Analogical
(B) Deductive
(C) Statistical
(D) Casual
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Correct Answer is A
2. Given below are some characteristics of logical argument.
Select the code which expresses a characteristic which is not of
inductive in character.
(A) The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.
(B) The conclusion is based on causal relation.
(C) The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.
(D) The conclusion is based on observation and experiment
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Correct Answer is C
3. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate
terms can both be true but cannot both be false, the relation between
those two propositions is called
(A) contradictory
(B) contrary
(C) subcontrary
(D) subaltern
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Correct Answer is C
4. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2
and 7. How many numbers have been written?
(A) 32
(B) 36
(C) 40
(D) 38
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Correct Answer is A
5. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B & C interrelated
with each other. The circle A represents the class of Indians,
the circle B represents the class of scientists and circle C represents
the class of politicians.
p, q, r, s represent different regions. Select
the code containing the region that indicates the class of Indian
scientists who are not politicians.
6. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn
from those premises. Select the code that expresses conclusion drawn
validly from the premises (separately or jointly).
Premises:
(a) All dogs are mammals.
(b) No cats are dogs.
Conclusions:
(i) No cats are mammals
(ii) Some cats are mammals.
(iii) No Dogs are cats
(iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
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Correct Answer is C
Read the following table and answer question no 7-11 based on table
7. Find out the source of irrigation that has registered the
maximum improvement in terms of percentage of Net irrigated area
during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
(A) Government Canals
(B) Tanks
(C) Tube Wells and other wells
(D) Other Sources
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Correct Answer is D
8. In which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks
increased at the highest rate?
(A) 1998-99
(B) 2000-01
(C) 2003-04
(D) 2005-06
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Correct Answer is D
9. Identify the source of irrigation that has recorded the
maximum incidence of negative growth in terms of Net irrigated area
during the years given in the table.
(A) Government Canals
(B) Private Canals
(C) Tube Wells and other wells
(D) Other sources
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Correct Answer is A
10. In which of the following years, share of the tube wells and
other wells in the total net irrigated area was the highest?
(A) 1998-99
(B) 2000-01
(C) 2002-03
(D) 2004-05
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Correct Answer is C
11. Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered
the largest percentage of decline in Net area under irrigation during
1997-98 and 2005-06 ?
(A) Government Canals
(B) Private Canals
(C) Tanks
(D) Other Sources
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Correct Answer is C
12. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file
format?
(A) PNG
(B) GIF
(C) BMP
(D) GUI
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Correct Answer is D
13. The first Web Browser is
(A) Internet Explorer
(B) Netscape
(C) World Wide Web
(D) Firefox
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Correct Answer is C
14. When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory
by
(A) RAM
(B) ROM
(C) CD-ROM
(D) TCP
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Correct Answer is B
15. Which one of the following is not the same as the other
three?
(A) MAC address
(B) Hardware address
(C) Physical address
(D) IP address
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Correct Answer is D
16. Identify the IP address from the following:
(A) 300 .215.317 3
(B) [email protected]
(C) 202.50.20.148
(D) 202-50-20-148
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Correct Answer is C
17. The acronym FTP stands for
(A) File Transfer Protocol
(B) Fast Transfer Protocol
(C) File Tracking Protocol
(D) File Transfer Procedure
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Correct Answer is A
18. Which of the following cities has been worst affected by
urban smog in recent times?
(A) Paris
(B) London
(C) Los Angeles
(D) Beijing
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Correct Answer is D
19. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies
is
(A) run-off urban areas
(B) run-off from agricultural forms
(C) sewage effluents
(D) industrial effluents
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Correct Answer is C
20. 'Lahar' is a natural disaster involving
(A) eruption of large amount of material
(B) strong winds
(C) strong water waves
(D) strong winds and water waves
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Correct Answer is A
21. The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average
consumption of energy per person per year in India as 30 Mega
Joules. If this consumption is met by carbon based fuels and the rate
of carbon emissions per kilojoule is l5 x I06 kgs, the total carbon
emissions per year from India will be
(A) 54 million metric tons
(B) 540 million metric tons
(C) 5400 million metric tons
(D) 2400 million metric tons
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Correct Answer is B
22. The National Disaster Management Authority functions
under the Union Ministry of
(A) Environment
(B) Water Resources
(C) Home Affairs
(D) Defence
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Correct Answer is C
23. Match List - I and List - II and select the correct answer
from the codes given below:
Code:
List-I
List-II
a.Flood
1. Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration
b.Drought
2. Tremors produced by the passage o fvibratory waves through the rocks of the earth
c.Earthquake
3. A vent through which molted substances come out
d.Volcano
4. Excess rain and uneven distribution of water
a b c d
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
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Correct Answer is A
24. Which one of the following green house gases has the
shortest residence time in the atmosphere?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Nitrous oxide
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Correct Answer is C
25. In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate
change, there is general agreement among the countries of the world
to limit the rise in average surface temperature of earth compared to
that of pre-industrial times by
(A) 1.5 oC to 2 oC
(B) 2.0 oC to 3.5 oC
(C) 0.5 oC to 1.0 oC
(D) 0.25 oC to 0.5 oC
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Correct Answer is A
26. Who among the following is the defacto executive head of the
Planning Commission?
(A) Chairman
(B) Deputy Chairman
(C) Minister of State for Planning
(D) Member Secretary
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Correct Answer is B
27. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Residuary Powers
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Correct Answer is C
28. Which of the following are Central Universities?
1. Pondicherry University
2. Vishwa Bharati
3. H.N.B. Garhwal University
4. Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
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Correct Answer is A
29. Consider the following statements and select the correct
answer from the code given below:
i. Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country.
ii. India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.
iii. The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by Tamil Nadu.
iv. The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.
Codes:
(A) i and ii
(B) i, ii and iii
(C) ii and iii
(D) i and iv
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Correct Answer is D
30. Which of universities has adopted the meta university
concept?
(A) Assam University
(B) Delhi University
(C) Hyderabad University
(D) Pondicherry University
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Correct Answer is B
31. Which of the statements are correct about a Central
University?
1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.
3. The President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive
Committee or the Board of Management of the University.
4. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive
Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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Correct Answer is C
32. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments
(i) and (ii).
Statement: India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments:
(i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.
(ii) No, it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.
Codes:
(A) Only argument (i) is strong.
(B) Only argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
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Correct Answer is A
33. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching?
(A) Lecture
(B) Discussion
(C) Demonstration
(D) Narration
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Correct Answer is C
34. Dyslexia is associated with
(A) mental disorder
(B) behavioural disorder
(C) reading disorder
(D) writing disorder
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Correct Answer is C
35. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has
been assigned by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to
(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium for Educational Communication
(C) National Knowledge Commission
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
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Correct Answer is B
36. Classroom communication is normally considered as
(A) effective
(B) cognitive
(C) affective
(D) selective
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Correct Answer is C
37. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated
teaching?
(A) Students asking questions
(B) Maximum attendance of the students
(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom
(D) Students taking notes
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Correct Answer is A
38. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in
(A) the appendix
(B) a separate chapter
(C) the concluding chapter
(D) the text itself
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Correct Answer is D
39. A thesis statement is
(A) an observation
(B) a fact
(C) an assertion
(D) a discussion
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Correct Answer is C
40. The research approach of Max Weber to understand how
people create meanings in natural settings is identified as
(A) positive paradigm
(B) critical paradigm
(C) natural paradigm
(D) interpretative paradigm
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Correct Answer is D
41. Which one of the following is a non probability sampling?
(A) Simple Random
(B) Purposive
(C) Systematic
(D) Stratified
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Correct Answer is B
42. Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning
progress to provide continuous feedback to the students during
instruction.
(A) Placement
(B) Diagnostic
(C) Formative
(D) Summative
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Correct Answer is C
43. The research stream of immediate application is
(A) Conceptual research
(B) Action research
(C) Fundamental research
(D) Empirical research
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Correct Answer is B
44. Who among the following propounded the concept of
paradigm?
(A) Peter Haggett
(B) Von Thunen
(C) Thomas Kuhn
(D) John K. Wright
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Correct Answer is C
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 45 to 49:
Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common system of leadership which we call the ‘State’. The Indian ‘State’s’ special feature is the peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical provenances which manually adhere in a geographical, economic and political sense, without ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon the basis of hwo the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in it traditional law, though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word ‘State’ above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the State, at least before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of state ‘sovereignty’ or of any church-and-state dichotomy.
Modem Indian ‘secularism’ has an admittedly peculiar feature: It requires the state to make a fair distribution of attention amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of India’s famed tolerance (Indian kings to rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More’s Utopia. There is little about modern India that strikes one at once as Utopian but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the absense of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all Utopians.
45. The author uses the word 'State' to highlight
(A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout
the period of history.
(B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in
time.
(C) The concept of state sovereignty
(D) Dependence of religion
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Correct Answer is D
46. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian
'Secularism'?
(A) No discrimination on religious considerations
(B) Total indifference to religion
(C) No space for social identity
(D) Disregard for social law
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Correct Answer is A
47. The basic construction of Thomas More's Utopia was inspired
by
(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance.
(B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers.
(C) Social inequality in India.
(D) European perception of Indian State
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Correct Answer is A
48. What is the striking feature of modern India?
(A) A replica of Utopian State
(B) Uniform Laws
(C) Adherence to traditional values
(D) Absence of Bigotry
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Correct Answer is D
49. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian
state?
(A) peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(B) peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances
attached to each other in a geographical, economical and political sense
(C) Social integration of all groups
(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups
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Correct Answer is B
50. The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed
in the area of
(A) Technological theory
(B) Dispersion theory
(C) Minimal effects theory
(D) Information theory
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Correct Answer is D
51. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred
on
(A) Karan Johar
(B) Amir Khan
(C) Asha Bhonsle
(D) Gulzar
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Correct Answer is D
52. Photographs are not easy to
A) publish
(B) secure
(C) decode
(D) change
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Correct Answer is C
53. The grains that appear on a television set when operated are
also referred to as
(A) sparks
(B) green Dots
(C) snow
(D) rain Drops
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Correct Answer is C
54. In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder
when there is
(A) noise
(B) audience
(C) criticality
(D) feedback
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Correct Answer is D
55. Break-down in verbal communication is described as
(A) Short Circuit
(B) Contradiction
(C) Unevenness
(D) Entropy
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Correct Answer is D
56. In certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as
DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is the code word for the word
RESPONSE?
(A) OMESUCEM
(B) OMESICSM
(C) OMESICEM
(D) OMESISCM
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Correct Answer is C
57. lf the series 4,5,8,13,14,17,22,........ is continued in the same
pattern, which one of the following is not a term of this series?
(A) 31
(B) 32
(C) 33
(D) 35
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Correct Answer is C
58. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP,..........
(A) TS
(B) ST
(C) RS
(D) SR
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Correct Answer is A
59. A man started walking from his house towards south. After
walking 6 km, he turned to his left and walked 5 km after. Then he
walked further 3 km after turning left. He then turned to his left and
continued his walk for 9 km. How far is he away from his house?
(A) 3 km
(B) 4 km
(C) 5 km
(D) 6 km
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Correct Answer is C
60. In a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of
Rs 7, Rs 8, Rs 10 are available. The exact amount for which one cannot buy stamps is
(A) 19
(B) 20
(C) 23
(D) 29
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is A
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