Are leaders born or made? This is a false dichotomy – leaders are neither born nor made. Leaders choose to be leaders.
1. Photo bleeding means
(A) Photo cropping
(B) Photo placement
(C) Photo cutting
(D) Photo colour adjustment
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Correct Answer is D
2. While designing communication strategy feed-forward
studies are conducted by
(A) Audience
(B) Communicator
(C) Satellite
(D) Media
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Correct Answer is B
3. In which language the newspapers have highest
circulation?
(A) English
(B) Hindi
(C) Bengali
(D) Tamil
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Correct Answer is B
4. Aspect ratio of TV Screen is
(A) 4 : 3
(B) 3 : 4
(C) 2 : 3
(D) 2 : 4
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Correct Answer is A
5. Communication with oneself is known as
(A) Organisational Communication
(B) Grapewine Communication
(C) Interpersonal Communication
(D) Intrapersonal Communication
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Correct Answer is D
6. The term ‘SITE’ stands for
(A) Satellite Indian Television Experiment
(B) Satellite International Television Experiment
(C) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
(D) Satellite Instructional Teachers Education
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Correct Answer is C
7. What is the number that comes next in the sequence?
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, __
(A) 76
(B) 74
(C) 75
(D) 50
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Correct Answer is C
8. Find the next letter for the series MPSV..…
(A) X
(B) Y
(C) Z
(D) A
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Correct Answer is B
9. If ‘367’ means ‘I am happy’; ‘748’ means ‘you are sad’ and
‘469’ means ‘happy and sad’ in a given code, then which of the
following represents ‘and’ in that code?
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 9
(D) 4
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Correct Answer is C
10. The basis of the following classification is ‘animal’, ‘man’,
‘house’, ‘book’, and ‘student’:
(A) Definite descriptions
(B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases
(D) Common names
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Correct Answer is D
11. Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up
tails.
Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time
it came up heads.
Choose the correct answer from below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
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Correct Answer is C
12. The relation ‘is a sister of ’ is
(A) non-symmetrical
(B) symmetrical
(C) asymmetrical
(D) transitive
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Correct Answer is D
13. If the proposition “Vegetarians are not meat eaters” is false,
then which of the following inferences is correct ?
Choose from the codes given below :
1. “Some vegetarians are meat eaters” is true.
2. “All vegetarians are meat eaters” is doubtful.
3. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is true.
4. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is doubtful.
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
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Correct Answer is A
14. Determine the nature of the following definition:
‘Poor’ means having an annual income of Rs.10,000
(A) persuasive
(B) precising
(C) lexical
(D) stipulative
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Correct Answer is B
15. Which one of the following is not an argument?
(A) If today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(B) Since today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(C) Ram insulted me so I punched him in the nose.
(D) Ram is not at home, so he must have gone to town
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Correct Answer is A
16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to
(A) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences with the help of
Boolean Algebra of classes.
(B) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of
Boolean Algebra of classes.
(C) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help
of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(D) assess but not represent the validity of elementary inferences with the help
of Boolean Algebra of classes.
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Correct Answer is B
17. Inductive logic studies the way in which a premise may
(A) support and entail a conclusion
(B) not support but entail a conclusion
(C) neither support nor entail a conclusion
(D) support a conclusion without entailing it
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Correct Answer is D
18. Which of the following statements are true? Choose from
the codes given below.
1. Some arguments, while not completely valid, are almost valid.
2. A sound argument may be invalid.
3. A cogent argument may have a probably false conclusion.
4. A statement may be true or false.
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 4 alone
(D) 3 and 4
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Correct Answer is D
19. If the side of the square increases by 40%, then the area of
the square increases by
(A) 60 %
(B) 40 %
(C) 196 %
(D) 96 %
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Correct Answer is D
20. There are 10 lamps in a hall. Each one of them can be
switched on independently. The number of ways in which hall can be
illuminated is
(A) 102
(B) 1023
(C) 210
(D) 10 !
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Correct Answer is B
21. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with
2?
(A) 100
(B) 110
(C) 120
(D) 180
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Correct Answer is B
22. In a college having 300 students, every student reads 5
newspapers and every newspaper is read by 60 students. The number
of newspapers required is
(A) at least 30
(B) at most 20
(C) exactly 25
(D) exactly 5
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Correct Answer is C
The total CO2 emissions from various sectors are 5 mmt. In the Pie Chart
given below, the percentage contribution to CO2 emissions from various
sectors is indicated. Answer questions 23 & 24.
23. What is the absolute CO2 emission from domestic sector?
(A) 1.5 mmt
(B) 2.5 mmt
(C) 1.75 mmt
(D) 0.75 mmt
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Correct Answer is D
24. What is the absolute CO2 emission for combined thermal
power and transport sectors?
(A) 3.25 mmt
(B) 1.5 mmt
(C) 2.5 mmt
(D) 4 mmt
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Correct Answer is A
25. Which of the following operating system is used on mobile
phones?
(A) Windows Vista
(B) Android
(C) Windows XP
(D) All of the above
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Correct Answer is B
26. If (y)x represents a number y in base x, then which of the
following numbers is smallest of all?
(A) (1111)2
(B) (1111)8
(C) (1111)10
(D) (1111)16
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Correct Answer is A
27. High level programming language can be converted to
machine language using which of the following?
(A) Oracle
(B) Compiler
(C) Mat lab
(D) Assembler
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Correct Answer is B
28. HTML is used to create
(A) machine language program
(B) high level program
(C) web page
(D) web server
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Correct Answer is C
29. The term DNS stands for
(A) Domain Name System
(B) Defense Nuclear System
(C) Downloadable New Software
(D) Dependent Name Server
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Correct Answer is A
30. IPv4 and IPv6 are addresses used to identify computers on
the internet.
Find the correct statement out of the following:
(A) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is more than number of bits
required for IPv6 address.
(B) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is same as number of bits
required for IPv6 address.
(C) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is less than number of bits
required for IPv6 address.
(D) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is 64.
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Correct Answer is C
31. Which of the following pollutants affects the respiratory
tract in humans?
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Nitric oxide
(C) Sulphur di-oxide
(D) Aerosols
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Correct Answer is C
32. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the
transport sector?
(A) Oxides of nitrogen
(B) Chlorofluorocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons
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Correct Answer is B
33. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum
potential in India?
(A) Solar energy
(B) Wind energy
(C) Ocean thermal energy
(D) Tidal energy
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Correct Answer is B
34. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Agriculture sector
(C) Thermal power plants
(D) Hydropower plants
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Correct Answer is D
35. Which of the following is not a natural hazard?
(A) Earthquake
(B) Tsunami
(C) Flash floods
(D) Nuclear accident
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Correct Answer is D
36. Ecological footprint represents
(A) area of productive land and water to meet the resources requirement
(B) energy consumption
(C) CO2 emissions per person
(D) forest cover
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Correct Answer is A
37. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is
(A) the moral values
(B) the social values
(C) the political values
(D) the economic
values
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Correct Answer is A
38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University
Grants Commission of India.
(A) 10
(B) 07
(C) 08
(D) 09
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Correct Answer is B
39. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of
(A) The President of India
(B) Finance Minister of India
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India
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Correct Answer is D
40. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below :
Code:
List-I (Commissions and Committees)
List-II (Year)
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission
(i) 2005
(b) Paul H. Appleby Committee
(ii) 1962
(c) K. Santhanam Committee
(iii) 1966
(d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
(iv) 1953
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
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Correct Answer is B
41. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political
parties is the function performed by
(A) The State Election Commission of respective States
(B) The Law Ministry of Government of India
(C) The Election Commission of India
(D) Election Department of the State Governments
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Correct Answer is C
42. The members of Gram Sabha are
(A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas
(B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
(C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas
(D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat
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Correct Answer is D
43. By which of the following methods the true evaluation of the
students is possible?
(A) Evaluation at the end of the course.
(B) Evaluation twice in a year.
(C) Continuous evaluation.
(D) Formative evaluation
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Correct Answer is C
44. Suppose a student wants to share his problems with his teacher and he visits the teacher’s house for the purpose, the teacher
should
(A) contact the student’s parents and solve his problem.
(B) suggest him that he should never visit his house.
(C) suggest him to meet the principal and solve the problem.
(D) extend reasonable help and boost his morale
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Correct Answer is D
45. When some students are deliberately attempting to disturb
the discipline of the class by making mischief, what will be your role
as a teacher?
(A) Expelling those students.
(B) Isolate those students.
(C) Reform the group with your authority.
(D) Giving them an opportunity for introspection and improve their behaviour.
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Correct Answer is D
46. Which of the following belongs to a projected aid?
(A) Blackboard
(B) Diorama
(C) Epidiascope
(D) Globe
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Correct Answer is C
47. A teacher is said to be fluent in asking questions, if he can
ask
(A) meaningful questions
(B) as many questions as possible
(C) maximum number of questions in a fixed time
(D) many meaningful questions in a fixed time
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Correct Answer is A
48. Which of the following qualities is most essential for a
teacher?
(A) He should be a learned person.
(B) He should be a well dressed person.
(C) He should have patience.
(D) He should be an expert in his subject.
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Correct Answer is C
49. A hypothesis is a
(A) law
(B) canon
(C) postulate
(D) supposition
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Correct Answer is D
50. Suppose you want to investigate the working efficiency of
nationalised bank in India, which one of the following would you
follow?
(A) Area Sampling
(B) Multi-stage Sampling
(C) Sequential Sampling
(D) Quota Sampling
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Correct Answer is B
51. Controlled group condition is applied in
(A) Survey Research
(B) Historical Research
(C) Experimental Research
(D) Descriptive Research
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Correct Answer is C
52. Workshops are meant for
(A) giving lectures
(B) multiple target
groups
(C) showcase new theories
(D) hands on training/experience
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Correct Answer is D
53. Which one of the following is a research tool?
(A) Graph
(B) Illustration
(C) Questionnaire
(D) Diagram
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Correct Answer is C
54. Research is not considered ethical if it
(A) tries to prove a particular point.
(B) does not ensure privacy and anonymity of the respondent.
(C) does not investigate the data scientifically.
(D) is not of a very high standard
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Correct Answer is B
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (Qn. Nos. 55 to 60) :
The catalytic fact of the twentieth century is uncontrollable development, consumerist society, political materialism, and spiritual devaluation. This inordinate development has led to the transcendental ‘second reality’ of sacred perception that biologically transcendence is a part of human life. As the century closes, it dawns with imperative vigour that the ‘first reality’ of enlightened rationalism and the ‘second reality’ of the Beyond have to be harmonised in a worthy state of man. The de facto values describe what we are, they portray the ‘is’ of our ethic, they are est values (Latin est means is). The ideal values tell us what we ought to be, they are esto values (Latin esto ‘ought to be’). Both have to be in the ebb and flow of consciousness. The ever new science and technology and the ever-perennial faith are two modes of one certainty, that is the wholeness of man, his courage to be, his share in Being.
The materialistic foundations of science have crumbled down. Science itself has proved that matter is energy, processes are as valid as facts, and affirmed the non-materiality of the universe. The encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the humane, will restore the normal vision, and will be the bedrock of a ‘science of understanding’ in the new century. It will give new meaning to the ancient perception that quantity (measure) and quality (value) coexist at the root of nature. Human endeavours cannot afford to be humanistically irresponsible.
55. The problem raised in the passage reflects overall on
(A) Consumerism
(B) Materialism
(C) Spiritual devaluation
(D) Inordinate development
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Correct Answer is D
56. The ‘de facto’ values in the passage means
(A) What is
(B) What ought to be
(C) What can be
(D) Where it is
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Correct Answer is A
57. According to the passage, the ‘first reality’ constitutes
(A) Economic prosperity
(B) Political development
(C) Sacred perception of life
(D) Enlightened rationalism
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Correct Answer is D
58. Encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the human
implies
(A) Restoration of normal vision
(B) Universe is both material and non-material
(C) Man is superior to nature
(D) Co-existence of quantity and quality in nature
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Correct Answer is A
59. The contents of the passage are
(A) Descriptive
(B) Prescriptive
(C) Axiomatic
(D) Optional
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Correct Answer is D
60. The passage indicates that science has proved that
(A) universe is material
(B) matter is energy
(C) nature has abundance
(D) humans are irresponsible
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Correct Answer is B
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